Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why did Cartman love Heidi purely with heart, her being the first one he ever did, but then one day Butters tells him that all women are manipulative and then he began to believe that she was a bad person and pretended to be a victim?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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